example.com is listed with a registrar -- specifically, answerable.com.
I want to host a subdomain in-house, specifically home.example.com.
I am using an ipv6 gateway, specifically gogo6, to have a public IPv6 address. The IP address looks like 2001:xxxx:xx47.
Then http://[2001:xxxx:xx47] goes to my test site (an instance of IIS7). I can add a quad-A record for my primary site -- home.example.com AAAA 2001:xxxx:xx47. Then http//home.example.com loads correctly.
Must I add an A or quad-A record for all sub.home.example.com to my answerable.com DNS manager for example.com? Or can I delegate DNS queries to *.home.example.com to the machine at [2001:xxxx:xx47]?
I have tried to add a AAAA record for tunnel.example.com to [2001:xxxx:xx47], and then add an NS entry for home.example.com to tunnel.example.com, but browsing then results in "DNS lookup error" from my browser.
Is this a configurable scenario? Can DNS for subdomain only be delegated to IPv4 addresses?
No, there is no difference between IPv4 and IPv6 in that respect because DNS subdomains are not delegated to addresses, only to names. Here is how it appears in a typical zone file:
See? You do not indicate the IP addresses of ns1 and ns2. They can be IPv4, IPv6 or both.
But do you really need delegation? From what you describe, adding a AAAA record for stuff.home.example.com via the interface of your DNS hoster should be sufficient.
Now, for the "DNS lookup error", it may depend on the resolver you use (typically the one from your IAP). Some do not have IPv6 connectivity at all (a shame in 2010 but it happens).